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Tuesday 5 October 2010

un.b.inggris.2009

D4-P45-2008/2009 ©Hak Cipta pada Pusat Penilaian Pendidikan-BALITBANG DEPDIKNAS
DOKUMEN NEGARA 1
SANGAT RAHASIA
Mata Pelajaran : Bahasa Inggris
Program Studi : IPA/IPS/Bahasa/Keagamaan
Hari/Tanggal : Selasa, 21 April 2009
Jam : 08.00 – 10.00
1. Isikan identitas Anda ke dalam Lembar Jawabam Ujian Nasional (LJUN) yang tersedia dengan
menggunakan pensil 2B sesuai petunjuk LJUN.
2. Hitamkan bulatan di depan nama mata ujian pada LJUN.
3. Tersedia waktu 120 menit untuk mengerjakan paket tes tersebut.
4. Jumlah soal sebanyak 50 butir, pada setiap butir soal terdapat 4 (empat) dan 5 (lima) pilihan
jawaban.
5. Periksa dan bacalah soal-soal sebelum Anda menjawabnya.
6. Laporkan kepada pengawas ujian apabila terdapat lembar soal yang kurang jelas, rusak, atau
tidak lengkap.
7. Mintalah kertas buram kepada pengawas ujian, bila diperlukan.
8. Tidak diizinkan menggunakan kalkulator, HP, tabel matematika atau alat bantu hitung lainnya.
9. Periksalah pekerjaan Anda sebelum diserahkan kepada pengawas ujian.
10. Lembar soal tidak boleh dicorat-coret.
PETUNJUK UMUM
PELAKSANAAN
MATA PELAJARAN
D4-P45-2008/2009 ©Hak Cipta pada Pusat Penilaian Pendidikan-BALITBANG DEPDIKNAS
DOKUMEN NEGARA 2
SANGAT RAHASIA
LISTENING SECTION
Part 1
Question: 1 to 5
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues or questions spoken in English. The questions
and the dialogues will be spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must
listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.
After you listen to a dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide
which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample
question.
You will hear:
Man : Sally, I lost my wallet. May I borrow fifty thousand rupiahs?
Woman : Sure. Here you are.
Narrator : You will also hear : What will the woman do?
You will read in your test book:
A. Leave the man alone.
B. Drive the man home.
C. Find the lost wallet.
D. Lend the man money.
E. Borrow the man’s wallet.
The best answer to the question is “Lend the man money.”
Therefore, you should choose answer (D)
1. A. The woman’s health problem.
B. A troublesome woman.
C. The woman’s new bag.
D. The woman’s anxiety.
E. The poor woman.
2. A. Herbal medicine.
B. Some medicine.
C. Fresh herbal.
D. Cool drink.
E. The doctor.
3. A. Finishing the assignment.
B. Doing the office’s job.
C. Going to the office.
D. Going for a walk.
E. Writing a letter.
Sample answer
A B C D E
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DOKUMEN NEGARA 3
SANGAT RAHASIA
4. A. Buying the book.
B. Lending the book.
C. Reading the book.
D. Discussing the book.
E. Explaining about the book.
5.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
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Part II
Questions: 6 – 10
Directions:
In this part of the test you will hear some dialogues and a question spoken in English, followed by
four responses, also spoken in English. The dialogues and question and the responses will be
spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to
understand what the speakers say. You have to choose the best response to each question.
Now listen to a sample question:
Man : I got a bad result in my test.
Woman : What! You failed again?
Man : …
A. Let me try again.
B. I am fine, thank you.
C. Don’t worry, I’ll move.
D. Sorry, I’ve disappointed you.
Narrator : The best answer to the question “You failed again?” is choice (D), “Sorry, I’ve
disappointed you.”
Therefore you should choose answer (D).
6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
8. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
9. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
10. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
Sample answer
A B C D
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DOKUMEN NEGARA 5
SANGAT RAHASIA
Part III
Questions: 11 – 15
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken two
times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what
the speakers say.
After you hear a monologue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide
which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.
11.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
12. A. A fairy god mother.
B. The barleycorn seed.
C. The beautiful flower.
D. Thumbelina, a tiny little girl.
E. A poor man who lived in the forest.
13. A. In a valley.
B. In the forest.
C. In a flower pot.
D. On a farmer’s field.
E. In the garden meadow.
14. A. 400 – 480 kg
B. 400 – 680 kg
C. 480 – 600 kg
D. 680 – 880 kg
E. 880 – 1500 kg
15. A. In the Arctic Ocean.
B. In the Indian Ocean.
C. In the Pacific Ocean.
D. In the North Atlantic Ocean.
E. In the South Atlantic Ocean.
This is the end of the listening section
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DOKUMEN NEGARA 6
SANGAT RAHASIA
Text 1
The following text is for questions 16 and 19.
16. The text mainly tells us about …
A. forest people
B. National Park
C. forest conservation
D. illegal logging
E. illegal operation
17. Who were fighting for the conservation of the forest?
A. Members of the local Anak Dalam.
B. Tribal chief and his partner.
C. Women and children.
D. Adults and children.
E. Tribesmen.
18. The purpose of the text is …
A. to describe the Bukit Dua Belas National Park
B. to persuade readers about National Park Zone
C. to tell the readers what had happened in the forest
D. to entertain readers with a story about Anak Dalam
E. to inform readers about illegal logging
19. The tribesmen who are not included in the protest are from …
A. Terap
B. Jambi
C. Air hitam
D. Kedasung
E. Mangkekal
Every time see illegal logging in their area, the women and children cry out, “Where
can we settle and make a living if our forests were gone?”
They are the forest people, members of the local Anak Dalam tribe, in Mangkekal
(Makekal), Bukit Duabelas National Park, Jambi province. They have tried very hard to
protect the forest zone from illegal logging operations. “Adult as well as children are
fighting for the conservation of this forest,” said tribal chief Tumenggung (Regent) Meriak.
The national park zone is about 60,000 hectares. It is home for about 1,500 Anak Dalam. The
tribesmen llive in Mangkekal, Kedasung, Air hitam, and Terap.
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Text 2
The following text is for questions 20 and 23.
20. The text mainly tell about …
A. chasquis
B. the Incas
C. Sapa Inca
D. Spaniards
E. The Andes
21. “They constructed drainage system and underground water reservoirs.” (Paragraph 4)
A. grew
B. bore
C. built
D. existed
E. renovated
22. How was the empire destroyed?
A. The empire was destroyed by huge stones
B. It was destroyed by well-organized ayllu.
C. The empire was ruled by the Sapa Inca.
D. It was reconstructed by systems.
E. It was attacked by the Spaniards.
23. What did they use to calculate?
A. Quipus.
B. Strings.
C. Mortars.
D. Chasquis.
E. Huge stones.
The Incas used to be a large empire of 990 000 km2 in Peru of South America. Their
city was high up in the Andes Mountains. They were well-known for their great wealth,
especially gold. This great empire was unfortunately destroyed in an attack by the
Spaniards who were searching for famed gold. Although this empire existed way back in
1493, it was not backward but complex and well-organized.
The empire was ruled by the Sapa Inca, Lord of the World, Son of the Sun. he
owned everything in the empire – the land, soil, gold and even the people. The people,
therefore, had no freedom.
Boys and girls were to live a life of obedience and tradition. They began working in
their ayllu or family group. The rule was Ama sua, ama llulla, ama sheklla, which means,
“Do not steal, do not lie, do not be lazy.”
Despite this difficult way of life, the Incas were very skilful. They constructed
drainage system and underground water reservoirs. Their buildings were made from huge
stones. These were cut to fit perfectly together so that no mortar was needed. Their rope
bridges were so strong that even a horse could gallop across them!
The Incas had no written language Information was recorded on knotted strings
called quipus. These were also used as calculators. Strong and healthy young boys were
chosen as chasquis or couriers to carry messages from one place to another.
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Text 3.
The following text is for questions 24 to 27.
24. What makes parents reluctant to send their daughters to college?
A. They think education will be a waste.
B. More women are successful in their career.
C. It is a waste for women to go to college.
D. Traditional roles of women in society do not need high education
E. They have to contribute something to the society.
25. What is the main purpose of the text?
A. To put forward a point of view or argument about higher education for women.
B. To tell the parents in this modern era about how to educate their daughters.
C. To persuade readers what should and should not do about education.
D. To explain to readers about how to give education for their daughters
E. To describe the fact about how some parents educate their daughters.
26. Modern society needs …
A. educated career women
B. married women
C. educated women
D. good housewives and mothers
E. talented people regardless gender
Higher Education for women
In this modern era still some parents who are reluctant about sending their
daughters to college. The narrow attitude shown to women’s education is largely due to
the traditional role of women in society. A woman is expected to be a wife and a mother.
Most parents believe that if their daughter gets married and chooses to be a housewife,
then the higher education will be a waste. However, an educated woman is not only a
better wife but also contributes something to the society.
Nowadays, more and more women are successfully combining their career and
marriage. Educated women are richer both emotionally and financially. They are able to
find an outlet fot their monotonous drudgery of their housekeeping. They bring more
satisfaction and contentment to their lives.
Depriving girls of higher education is crass discrimination. Times have changed;
modern society needs the talents of its people regardless of gender. Today, women work
alongside men. In fact, in the last few decades, women have made outstanding
contributions to society.
Women should be given the freedom to be educated whether or not they get
married or go to work after finishing their education, because it is only through education
that a woman will find herself useful and discover what she wants in life. A woman who
works is not an insult to her husband. Conversely, her husband should feel proud of her
achievements since marriage is actually an equal partnership.
Therefore, parents should not think that girls should receive less education just
because they will get married one day.
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27. “In fact, in the last few decades, women have made outstanding contributions to society.”
(Paragraph 3).
The synonym of the underlined word is …
A. main
B. major
C. ordinary
D. well known
E. remarkable
Text 4
The following text is for questions 28 to 32.
28. How do we compare the second and the fourth paragraph?
A. Both paragraphs argue that homework is necessary for students.
B. Unlike the fourth paragraph, the second paragraph argues that homework is unnecessary.
C. The second paragraph supports that students need homework, but the fourth paragraph
does not.
D. The second paragraph and the fourth paragraph argue that students do not need homework.
E. The second and the fourth paragraphs do not say anything about the benefit of homework.
29. How many reasons are presented by those who are against homework?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
There are a lot of discussions as to whether children should be given homework or
not.
Some people claim that children do enough work in school already. They also argue
that children have hobbies that they want to do after school, such, as sports or music. A
further point they make is that a lot of homework is pointless and doesn’t help the child
learn at all.
However, there are also strong arguments against this point of view. Parents and
teachers argue that it is important to find out whether children can work on their own
without the support from the teacher. They say that the evening is a good time for children
to sit down and think about what they have learned in school.
Furthermore they claim that the school day is too short to get anything done that
needs doing and it makes sense to send home tasks like independent reading or further
writing tasks that don’t need teacher’s support.
On balance, I think that some homework is a good idea but that it should only given
at the weekend when children have more time.
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30. Those who are pro homework think that the students can … in the evening.
A. prepare for the next lesson
B. review their lessons
C. enjoy their pastime
D. do their hobbies
E. test themselves
31. “A further point they make is that a lot of homework is pointless and doesn’t help the child learn
at all.” (Paragraph 2)
The underlined word is synonymous with …
A. terrible
B. careless
C. difficult
D. unimportant
E. uninteresting
32. What is the writer’s suggestion about homework?
A. Homework is pointless.
B. Homework is badly needed.
C. Homework should be given at weekend.
D. Student should not be given homework.
E. Student must frequently have homework.
Text 5
The following text is for questions 33 and 34.
33. What is the message about?
A. Telling Tom to eat the soup
B. Asking Tom to buy some sugar.
C. Asking Tom to go to supermarket.
D. Telling Tom to heat the soup.
E. Telling Tom to wait for about 5 minutes.
34. “I’ve put some soup there.”
A. home
B. kitchen
C. the stove
D. the supermarket
E. Anula Supermaket
Tom !
I’m going to Anula supermarket to get some sugar. Would you like to turn the stove
on when you are home? I’ve put some soup there. Just heat it for about 5 minutes and then
take it out from stove before you have dinner.
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Text 6
This following text is for questions 35 to 36.
35. What is the purpose of the text?
A. To inform students about polytechnic admission form.
B. To tell the students about payment to enter the polytechnic.
C. To explain to the students about an entrance test.
D. To give description of polytechnic selection.
E. To invite students to come to polytechnic
36. The deadline to order the form is …
A. On July 6, 2009
B. On July 16, 2009
C. In July, at 08.00
D. In July, at 14.00
E. Between 6 – 16 July 2009
Text 7
The following text is for questions 37 and 38.
37. What does the letter tell about?
A. Liza’s problem.
B. Liza’s appointment.
C. Daisy’s previous letter to Liza.
D. Daisy’s regret for not being able to come.
E. A meeting held at Liza’s house.
Apt BLK 30, Eunos St.
# 05-116
Singapore 1441
2nd April 2009
Dear Liza,
I have received your letter asking me to meet you at your house this Sunday to discuss the
urgent matter you have. I regret however to say that it will not be possible for me to see
you on Sunday as I already have a previous appointment. I shall see you on Monday, next
week, at 5 p.m. Hoping the change of date will be convenient to you.
Your sincerely,
Daisy
For students-grade XII-who need the polytechnic admission form:
2 choices – Rp 125,000.00
3 choices – Rp 160,000.00
From 6 – 16 July 2009
Time 08.00 – 14.00
Contact Person : Tarjo. Phone (022) 2011975
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38. Why did Liza ask Daisy to come to her house?
A. Liza wanted daisy to solve her problem.
B. Daisy would discuss her problem with Liza.
C. Liza persuaded Daisy to go somewhere.
D. Daisy wanted to meet Liza’s family.
E. Liza wanted to chat with Daisy.
Text 8
This following text is for questions 39 to 41.
39. What is the text about?
A. A week tour to Italy.
B. A job vacancy in Hotel Cannero.
C. Three day tour to Eropean countries.
D. A healthy and clean environment.
E. The description on Cannero Riviera.
40. Who is the addressee of this advertisement?
A. All who are fit and healthy.
B. Those who can serve foreigners.
C. All who meet the requirements mentioned.
D. The educated people who can handle service jobs.
E. Those who can speak two foreign languages.
41. Those who are accepted to work for the hotel …
A. are mostly Italians
B. will get accommodation
C. are under the control of Maria Carla
D. will take control of each department
E. will start working between March and October
Hotel Cannero
28051 Cannero Riviera, Italy
Phone: 323788046
Waiters / Waitresses (2), Swimming Pool Attendants, Bar Staff.
Around $ 150 per week. 12 hours per day, 6 days week. Free board and
accomodation. Knowledge of German, Italian or French required. Period of work
3 or 6 months between end of March and end of October. Applicants should be
fit and healthy, organized and clean. Applications from 25 March to the end and
send to Maria Carla at the above address.
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Text 9
The following text is for questions 42 to 44.
42. The poor rabbit didn’t taste any of the meat because …
A. they are already given to the butcher
B. they are eaten by the youngest bear
C. the bear carried all the meat home
D. they are already dried up
E. the bear are all the meat
43. Which statement is NOT TRUE according to the text?
A. The papa bear was not very kind to the rabbit.
B. The rabbit got nothing from his shooting.
C. The mother bear always gives her youngest extra meat.
D. The papa bear didn’t like giving the rabbit some meat.
E. The papa bear knew that his youngest child gave the rabbit some meat.
44. The story teaches us that …
A. poverty makes people suffer
B. we must keep our promise
C. being greedy makes other people happy
D. people should love each other
E. we must keep our relationship with others
Once upon a time there lived as neighbours, a bear and a rabbit. The rabbit was a
good shot, and the bear, being very clumsy, could not use the arrow to good advantage. The
bear would call over the rabbit and asked the rabbit to take his bow and arrows and came
with the bear to the other side of the hill. The rabbit, fearing to arouse the bear’s anger by
refusing, consented and went with the bear and shot enough buffalo to satisfy the hungry
family. Indeed, he shot and killed so many that there was lots of meat left after the bear and
his family had loaded themselves, and packed all they could carry home. The bear was very
gluttonous and did not want the rabbit to get any of the meat, so the poor rabbit could not
even taste the blood from the butchering, as the bear would throw earth on the blood and
dry it up. Poor rabbit would have to go home hungry after his hard day’s work.
The bear was the father of five children. The youngest child was very kind to the
rabbit. The mother bear, knowing that her youngest child was very eater, always gave him
an extra large piece of meat, but the youngest child didn’t eat. He would take it outside with
him and pretend to play ball with it, kicking it toward the rabbit’s house, and when he got
close to the door he would give the meat with such a great kick, that it would fly into the
rabbit’s house and in this way the poor rabbit would get his unknown to the papa bear.
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Text 10
The following text is for questions 45 to 47.
45. The text reported …
A. Shafiq, a Singaporean supervisor
B. S.S.Dhillon, the lawyer in magistrate court
C. an Indonesia maid who was jailed for two months
D. an Indonesia maid who was working in Singapore
E. a Singaporean supervisor who was jailed because of striking his maid
46. When did Shafiq physically abuse the woman?
A. Between June and October 2002.
B. On several occasion.
C. On October 31st.
D. On June 22nd.
E. Any time.
47. Why did Shafiq punch Winarti on her back? She was accused of …
A. taking much time for herself
B. leaving her work
C. working carelessly
D. daydreaming
E. being lazy
SINGAPORE: A supervisor was jailed for two months for repeatedly striking his
Indonesia maid on the head and back with a television remote control, news report said on
Thursday.
Muhamad Shafiq Woon Abdullah admitted in Singapore court. He physically
abused the woman on several occasions between June and October 2002, The Straits said.
The magistrate’s court heard that Shafiq, 31: began striking Winarti, 22, about a
month after she started working for him.
He hit her on the head with the TV set’s remote control because he was unhappy
with her work. On one occasion, he punched her on the back after accusing her of
daydreaming.
S.S.Dhillon, Shafiq’s lawyer, said his client had become mad when he saw his
daughter’s face covered as she laid in bed.
He said his client thought the maid had put the child in danger. –DPA
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Text 11.
The following text is for questions 48 to 50.
48. How often did the writer eat a day?
A. Three times.
B. Seldom.
C. Twice.
D. Never.
E. Once.
49. “… mitigation team chief Alwi Shihab.” (Paragraph 1)
The synonym of the underlined word is …
A. decreaser
B. lightener
C. reliever
D. developer
E. writer
50. What is the writer’s occupation?
A. A social worker.
B. A volunteer.
C. A journalist.
D. A presenter.
E. A TV reporter.
I usually woke up at 8 a.m. and went to the press center to check the daily schedule
of briefings and press conferences, usually held by the United Nations officials or disaster
mitigation team chief, Alwi Shihab.
Ii was challenging to visit different refugee to find soft stories, human interest
stories. Then, I went back to the press center in between to cover the press conferences of
the day.
It was heart breaking when I saw these survivors fight for food and secondhand
clothing, which they said were limited and inadequate. Emerging to a glaring, full noon, it
was time to go back to the press center to write stories and race against time, always fearing
that the internet connection would come crashing down.
And after everything was done, only then I remembered to eat. Most times, I only
ate once a day because you always had to rush and it was difficult to find food. You had to
travel quite far, about a 30-to 45- minute trip by car to find fresh food.

un.b.inggris 2008

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Mata Pelajaran : Bahasa Inggris
Program Studi : IPA/IPS/Bahasa/Keagamaan
Hari/Tanggal : Rabu, 23 April 2008
Jam : 08.00 – 10.00
1. Isikan identitas Anda ke dalam Lembar Jawabam Ujian Nasional (LJUN) yang tersedia dengan
menggunakan pensil 2B sesuai petunjuk LJUN.
2. Hitamkan bulatan di depan nama mata ujian pada LJUN.
3. Tersedia waktu 120 menit untuk mengerjakan paket tes tersebut.
4. Jumlah soal sebanyak 50 butir, pada setiap butir soal terdapat 5 (lima) pilihan jawaban.
5. Periksa dan bacalah soal-soal sebelum Anda menjawabnya.
6. Laporkan kepada pengawas ujian apabila terdapat lembar soal yang kurang jelas, rusak, atau
tidak lengkap.
7. Mintalah kertas buram kepada pengawas ujian, bila diperlukan.
8. Tidak diizinkan menggunakan kalkulator, HP, tabel matematika atau alat bantu hitung lainnya.
9. Periksalah pekerjaan Anda sebelum diserahkan kepada pengawas ujian.
10. Lembar soal tidak boleh dicorat-coret.
PETUNJUK UMUM
PELAKSANAAN
MATA PELAJARAN
D4-P12-2007/2008 ©Hak Cipta pada Pusat Penilaian Pendidikan-BALITBANG DEPDIKNAS
DOKUMEN NEGARA 2
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Listening Section
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken
English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each part.
Part 1
Question: 1 to 5
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues or question spoken in English. The dialogues or
questions will be spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen
carefully to understand what the speakers say.
After you hear a dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide which
one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear:
Man : How about exercising tomorrow morning?
Woman : Alright. Pick me up at six.
You’ll also hear:
Narrator : What will the man do?
You will read in your test book:
A. Do exercise at 6.
B. Go with six women.
C. Take exercise alone.
D. Leave the woman alone.
E. Come to the women’s house.
The best answer to the question is “Come to the woman’s house”
Therefore, you should choose answer (E).
1. A. She cut herself quite badly.
B. She wasn’t given any help.
C. She cried while slicing onions.
D. She sliced the onions hurriedly.
E. She was going to make fried rice.
2. A. Do his assignment.
B. See a book fair.
C. Buy a history book.
D. Offer the woman a book.
E. Go to the woman’s house.
3. A. To buy a novel.
B. To read a novel.
C. To lend a novel.
D. To go to a bookstore.
E. To finish reading a novel.
Sample answer
A B C D E
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4. A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
5. A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
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Part II
Questions: 6 – 10
Directions:
In this part of the test you will hear a statement or a question spoken in English, followed by four
responses, also spoken in English. The statement or question and the responses will be spoken two
times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what
the speakers says. You have to choose the best response to each statement or question.
Now listen to a sample question:
You will hear:
Woman : Good morning, John. How are you?
Man : …
You will also hear:
A. I am fine, thank you.
B. I am in the living room.
C. Let me introduce myself.
D. My name is John Travolta.
The best answer to the question “How are you?” is choice (A), “I am fine, thank you.”
Therefore you should choose answer (A).
6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
8. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
9. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
10. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
Part III
Questions: 11 – 15
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologues will be spoken two
times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what
the speakers say.
After you hear a monologue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide
which one would be the best answer to the questions you have heard.
11. A. Goose hunting.
B. An unfaithful dog.
C. An unusual accident.
D. A mathematics teacher.
E. Chambers County Policeman.
Sample answer
A B C D E
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12. A. Arthur.
B. Houston.
C. Labrador.
D. Perry Price.
E. Joe LaRive.
13. A. It lies on high land.
B. It is densely populated.
C. It lies on a flat low plain area.
D. The climate is hot and humid.
E. It is at the mouth of the Ciliwung River.
14. A. James’s pet dog.
B. Muggs’s characteristics.
C. Muggs’s strange behavior.
D. The night when Muggs died.
E. Browny, the Cocker Spaniel.
15. A. Andre.
B. Muggs.
C. James.
D. Browny.
E. George.
The text for questions 16 to 19.
The Three Sheiks and Queen of Arabia
Maura, who liked to be thought of as the most beautiful and powerful
queen of Arabia, had many suitors. One by one she discarded them, until her
list was reduced to just three sheiks, all equally young and handsome, rich
and strong. It was very hard to decide who would be the best of them.
One evening, Maura disguised herself and went to the camp of the
three sheiks, as they were about to have a dinner, and asked them for
something to eat.
The first gave her some leftover food; the second gave her some unappetizing camel’s tail;
the third sheik, who was called Hakim, offered her some of the most tender and tasty meat. After
dinner, the disguised queen left the sheik’s camp.
The following day the queen invited the three sheiks to dinner at her palace. She ordered her
servants to give each one exactly what they had given her the evening before.
Hakim, who received a plate of delicious meat, refused to eat it if the other two could not
share it with him, and this act finally convinced Queen Maura that he was the man for her.
“Without question, Hakim is the most generous of you’” she announced her choice to the
sheiks, “So it is Hakim I will marry.”
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16. The three sheiks were not …
A. rich
B. young
C. strong
D. gloomy
E. handsome
17. Which statement is TRUE about the queen?
A. The queen was the most powerful queen in Africa.
B. The queen was very proud of her beauty and riches.
C. The queen herself served the sheiks with delicious food.
D. The queen was very careful in deciding whom she would marry.
E. The queen was very satisfied with the food given by the sheiks.
18. The Queen ordered her servants to give the sheiks the same kind of food she got from them the
evening before because …
A. she wanted to entertain her guests
B. she wanted to test the sheik’s taste
C. she wanted to see the sheik’s reactions
D. she wanted to make a joke of the sheiks
E. she wanted to repay the sheiks’ kindness
19. The main idea of paragraph six is …
A. Hakim was unselfish person.
B. Hakim was served with succulent meat.
C. Hakim was satisfied with the food served.
D. Hakim wanted to share the food with the sheiks.
E. Hakim had made the queen find the resolution of her problem.
The text is for questions 20 to 23.
Some of the world’s finest roads make use of bodies of water. They are called canals.
Canals are man made waterways. They are usually straight and narrow. But they are filled
with water. They connect rivers and lakes, oceans and lakes, rivers and rivers, and oceans and
oceans so that boats and ships can go from one to the other.
Most canals are used for transportation. Barges, boats, and ships carry goods over canals.
Some are used to irrigate land or to carry sewage from large cities. Canals also reduce the cost of
shipping goods and offer travel short cuts,
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Canals even go over hills and mountains. But you know that water can’t flow up a hill; so
how can the water and boats in a canal go up a hill?
Something called a lock is used. It is a giant tank. The tank is big enough to hold a long
boat. The boat floats into the tank, and the doors behind it are closed to lock the boat in there. Then
more water is let into the tank. When the tank is full of water, the tank door in front of the boat is
opened and the boat floats out. The boat floats higher and higher as the water rises. It floats either
out into a higher part of the canal or into another tank or lock, which will lift it still higher.
To go down the hill on the other side, the boat enters a lock that is full of water. As the water
is let out of the lock, the boat will float lower and lower. So locks make it possible for boats or ships
to move from one water level to another.
20. The text is about …
A. roads
B. waterways
C. water transportation
D. world’s finest canals
E. straight and narrow roads
21. Why do people build canals?
A. To lift boats.
B. To rise water.
C. To store sewage.
D. To hold a giant tank.
E. To connect rivers, lakes, and oceans.
22. According to the text, the canals join together the following EXCEPT …
A. rivers and lakes
B. oceans and lakes
C. rivers and rivers
D. rivers and oceans
E. oceans and oceans
23. “They are straight and narrow like some roads.” (Paragraph 2).
The antonym of the underlined word is …
A. flat
B. rough
C. bumpy
D. indirect
E. winding
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The text is for questions 24 and 25
24. What is the announcement about?
A. A school debate.
B. A school competition.
C. A debate competition.
D. Extracurricular activities.
E. Participants of the debate.
25. According to the text the competition …
A. is only for students with good English.
B. is in the form of spoken arguments.
C. is in the form of written arguments.
D. will be held after school hours.
E. will run for two days.
This text is for questions 26 to 28.
Mangrove Trees
A mangrove is a tropical marine tree or shrub of the genus Rhizhopora. Mangroves have
special aerial roots and salt-filtering tap roots that enable them to thrive in brackish water (brackish
water is salty, but not as salty as sea water).
There are several species of mangrove trees found all over the world. Some prefer more
salinity, while others like to be very close to a large fresh water source (such as a river). Some
prefer areas that are sheltered from waves. Some species have their roots covered with sea water
everyday during high tide. Other species grow on dry land, but are still part of the ecosystem.
ANNOUNCEMENT
Pay attention!
Our school will have a Debate Competition
_ Participants : All students in our school
_ It will be held from 10th – 12th August 2008
_ Prizes : I Rp. 2.000.000,-
II Rp. 1.500.000,-
III Rp. 1.000.000,-
Please join us!
Are you ready?
?
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Mangroves need to keep their trunk and leaves above the surface of the water. Yet they also
need to be firmly attached to the ground so they are not moved by waves. There are three types of
mangrove roots that play an important role for it:
(1) support roots which directly pierce the soil.
(2) level-growing roots which twist upwards and downwards, eith the upward twists emerging on
the water surface.
(3) level-growing roots whose downward twist (sub-roots) appear on the water surface.
Any part of a root that appears above the water flows oxygen to the plant under water
surface. As the soil begins to build up, these roots produce additional roots that become embedded
in the soil.
26. The main idea of the text is …
A. Mangroves grow on dry land
B. Mangroves are tropical marine trees
C. There are many species of mangroves
D. Mangroves roots filter the salt of the sea-water
E. Mangrove roots are attached firmly to the ground
27. We can conclude that most mangrove trees …
A. need salt to grow.
B. grow on dry land.
C. grow on sheltered areas.
D. get oxygen from water.
E. grow near fresh water sources.
28. In order to grow well mangroves require the following, EXCEPT …
A. The roots twist upwards and downwards.
B. The trunk should be above the water surface.
C. The leaves should be above the water surface.
D. The trees should be firmly attached to the ground.
E. The parts of the plant under the water should have enough salt.
The text is for questions 29 to 32
Is it important to know what your kids are watching? Of course yes. Television can expose
things you have tried to protect them from, especially violence, pornography, consumerism, etc.
A study demonstrated that spending too much time on watching TV during the day or at
bedtime often causes bedtime disruption, stress, and short of sleep duration.
Another research found that there is a significant relationship between the amount of time
spent for watching television during adolescence and early adulthood, and the possibility of being
aggressive.
Meanwhile, many studies have identified a relationship between kids who watch TV a lot
and being inactive and overweight.
Considering some facts mentioned above, protect your children with the following tips:
1. Limit television viewing to 1 – 2 hours each day.
2. Do not allow your children to have a TV set in their bedrooms.
3. Review the rating of TV shows that your children watch.
4. Watch television with your children and discuss what is happening in the show.
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29. What is the text about?
A. The program shown on TV.
B. Watching TV is disadvantageous.
C. The effects of watching television on kids.
D. Reviewing the ratings of TV shows is important.
E. The importance of knowing the program watched by our children.
30. The following are the effects of watching TV a lot EXCEPT …
A. stress
B. being active
C. being aggressive
D. bedtime disruption
E. shorten sleep duration
31. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the text?
A. All TV programs are good for children.
B. Children know what programs to watch.
C. It is goof for a kid to watch TV all day long.
D. It is very important for children to have a TV set in their bedrooms.
E. Spending too much time for watching TV may cause kids inactive.
32. It is hard for a child to sleep because …
A. the parents review TV’s program
B. the parents limit the time to watch TV
C. the kid watches TV with his/her parents
D. the kid watches too much TV at bedtime
E. the kid discusses the program with his/her parents
The text is for questions 33 and 34
We, a mining consultant company, are looking for …
A SENIOR SECRETARY
_ Female, graduated from a reputable university
_ Min. 5 years of work experience
_ Good command of English (oral & written)
_ Computer literate (min. Word, Excel, Internet)
Please submit your complete application, resume & recent photograph not more than 10 days
after this ads to :
HRD PT CITRA ENERGY DEVELOPMENT
Wisma Emha Jln. Wijaya I No. 11A, Kebayoran Baru, Jakarta Selatan 12170
Fax no. 021-7207978
e-mail address : mitraenergy@cbn.net.id
only short listed candidates will be notified
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33. What is the text about?
A. Wisma Emha.
B. A job vacancy.
C. A senior secretary.
D. An application letter.
E. PT Citra Energy Development.
34. The following are the requirements asked EXCEPT …
A. Five years experience.
B. Able to operate a computer.
C. Able to speak and write in English.
D. A graduate from a reputable university.
E. Application letter should be sent ten days after this ads.
This text is for questions 35 to 37.
Petroleum products, such as gasoline, kerosene, home heating oil, residual fuel oil and
lubricating oils, come from one source. Crude oil is found below the earth surface, as well as under
large bodies of water, from a few hundred feet below the surface to as deep as 25.000 feet into the
earth interior. Crude oil is obtained by drilling a hole through the earth, but sometimes more dry
holes are drilled than those producing oil. Pressure at the source, or pumping, forces the crude oil to
the surface.
Crude oil wells flows at varying rates, from ten to thousands of barrel per hour. Petroleum
products vary greatly in physical appearance: thin, thick, transparent, or opaque. Their chemical
compositions are made up of only two elements: carbon and hydrogen, which form compounds
called hydrocarbons. Other chemical elements found in the union with the hydrocarbons are few
and are classified as impurities. Trace elements are also found, but these are of such minute
quantities that they are disregarded.
The various petroleum products are refined from the crude oil by heating and condensing the
vapors of crude oil. These products are called light oils such as gasoline, kerosene and distillate oil.
35. The best title of the text is …
A. Petroleum Products.
B. Crude Oil Products.
C. Petroleum Processing.
D. Processing Petroleum Products.
E. Petroleum Chemical Compositing.
36. “…, but these are of such minute quantities.” (Paragraph 2)
The antonym of the underlined word is …
A. big
B. wide
C. broad
D. plain
E. apparent
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37. The second paragraph is mainly about …
A. the products of crude oil.
B. the elements of crude oil.
C. the impurities of crude oil.
D. the physical appearance of crude oil.
E. the chemical compositions of crude oil.
The text is for questions 38 to 40.
Breaking and Entering is an unusual film. Will and Sandy are two architects working on a
major urban renewal project in the King’s Cross section in London. The area is unsafe and ready for
such a project. Will and Sandy move their offices into a nearby vacant warehouse.
Will has to deal with constant burglaries at his new office. One night, he saw Miro trying to
break into the building. He chased Miro to his run down apartment block and watched him return to
his mother, Amira, a Bosnian immigrant who makes a living tailoring clothes. Soon, Will ‘meet’
Amira and they begin an affair. And Amira learns that Will holds the key of her son’s future. How
far will this mother go to protect her son? Breaking and Entering is a very enteristing film, but it is
almost entirely character driven. This is not a bad thing although in the film we are exposed to a
story or action driven.
Anthony Minghella, the director, creates some of the most believable, interesting characters
these actors have ever played. It is almost painful to watch them on their journey. Each of
characters makes decisions affecting how their lives will play out, or change and these decisions
and actions affect the story. The characters aren’t reacting to the story. They are changing it.
38. The text is mainly about …
A. a review of a new film, Breaking and Entering.
B. the process in making the new film, Breaking and Entering.
C. an amusing story dealing with experience in different ways.
D. an account of an unusual or amusing incident retold by the film.
E. the description how the film is accomplished through a series of steps.
39. “Will and Sandy move their offices into a nearby vacant warehouse.” (Paragraph 1).
The antonym of the underlined word is …
A. empty
B. fulfilled
C. covered
D. occupied
E. luxurious
40. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the text?
A. Miro is one of the burglars who tried to break into Will’s new office.
B. Will has to deal with consultant burglaries at his new office.
C. Miro is Amira’s son, a Bosnian immigrant who makes a living by tailoring clothes.
D. The area where the two architects work is unsafe and ready for a renewal project.
E. Minghella, the critic, creates some of the most interesting characters the actors have ever
played.
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The text is for questions 41 to 44
Nuclear power is generated by using uranium, which is a metal mined in various parts of the
world. The first large-scale nuclear power station was opened at Calder Hall in Cumbria, England,
in 1956.
Some military ships and submarines have nuclear power plant for engines. Nuclear power
produces around 11% of the world’s energy needed, and produces huge amounts of energy. It
causes no pollution as you’d get when burning fossil fuels.
The advantages of nuclear is as follows:
(1) It costs about the same as coal, so it’s not expensive to make.
(2) It doesn’t produce smoke or carbon dioxide, so it doesn’t contribute to the greenhouse effect.
(3) It produces huge amounts of energy from small amount uranium.
(4) It produces small amounts of waste.
(5) It is reliable.
On the other hand, nuclear power is very, very dangerous. It must be sealed up and buried
for many years to allow the radioactivity to die away. Furthermore, although it is reliable, a lot of
money has to be spent on safety because if it does go wrong, a nuclear accident can be a major
disaster.
People are increasingly concerned about this. In the 1990’s nuclear power was the fastest
growing source of power in many parts of the world. In 2005, it was the 2nd slowest-growing.
41. The text discusses …
A. nuclear in general
B. nuclear biggest station
C. the danger of radioactive
D. the disadvantages of nuclear power
E. the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear power
42. The opposite of dangerous is … (Paragraph 4)
A. vile
B. dull
C. tiny
D. calm
E. safe
43. Why is nuclear power very dangerous?
Because …
A. its radioactivity lasts long
B. uranium is renewable
C. it is reliable
D. it is cheap
E. it is safe
44. Which statement is TRUE about nuclear?
A. It is reliable.
B. It is costly to make.
C. It causes air pollution.
D. It affects the greenhouse.
E. It produces small amount of energy.
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This text is for questions 45 to 47.
Last week I took my five-year old son, Willy, to a musical instrument store in my
hometown. I wanted to buy him a set of junior drum because his drum teacher advised me to buy
him one. Willy likes listening to music very much. He also likes asking me everything he wants to
know. Even his questions sometimes seem precocious for a boy of his age. He is very inquisitive.
We went there by car. On the way, we saw a policeman standing near a traffic light
regulating the passing cars and other vehicles. He blew his whistle now and then.
Seeing the policeman blowing his whistle, Willy asked me at once, “Dad, why is the
policeman using a whistle, not a drum?”
Hearing his unexpected question I answered reluctantly, “Because he is not Phil Collins!”
45. What does the text talk about?
A. Willy and his new drum.
B. Phil Collins and his drum.
C. A policeman and his whistle.
D. Willy’s drum private teacher.
E. The writer’s five-years old son.
46. From the text above we know that Willy is a/an … boy.
A. smart
B. funny
C. stupid
D. childish
E. annoying
47. Which sentence makes the text a funny story?
A. He is very inquisitive.
B. “Because he is not Phil Collins”.
C. He blew his whistle now and then.
D. He also likes asking me everything he wants to know.
E. “Dad, why is the policeman using a whistle not a drum?
This text is for questions 48 to 50.
PHILIPPINES : At least nine people were killed and dozens were injured when the
Philippines security forces clashed with dozens of slum dwellers who resisted the tearing down of
their homes in the northern province, a police commander said Tuesday.
Raul Gonzales, the police chief in the northern Cordillera area, said, that the soldiers and
police officers traded gunfire with dozens of people who are illegally occupying the private land in
Kalinga province.
“Our team was ambushed on their way to the community to be demolished,” said Gonzales.
He added that the security only defended themselves after the residents dug foxholes and opened
fire with automatic rifles.
“Nine people were killed and dozens were wounded, including 10 police officers during
almost 10 hours of fighting. We even had to evacuate some of our officers who needed surgery to
get the bullets from their bodies.” – Reuters
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48. What is the passage about?
A. An illegal gunfire trade.
B. A demolition of illegal slum dwellers.
C. A fight between the police officers and the soldiers.
D. A clash between the security forces and the slum dwellers.
E. A clash between the police officers and the security officers.
49. The clash happened because …
A. illegal slum dwellers resisted the demolition of their homes.
B. the police officers and soldiers shot the dwellers.
C. nine people were killed by the security forces.
D. the police officers firing the dwellers.
E. the people dwelled in private land.
50. Raul Gonzales said that …
A. ten police officers had to be evacuated.
B. ten police officers were killed in the fighting.
C. ten police officers were injured during the fighting.
D. some of the wounded people needed surgery.
E. more than ten police officers were killed and injured in the fighting.

soal un b.inggris 2005

UJIAN NASIONAL
SMA/MA
Tahun Pelajaran 2004/2005
P1
BAHASA INGGRIS (D3)
PROGRAM STUDI BAHASA
( U T A M A )
2
MATA PELAJARAN
BAHASA INGGRIS
Program Studi : BAHASA
PELAKSANAAN
Hari/Tanggal : Selasa, 31 Mei 2005
Jam : 08.00 – 10.00
PETUNJUK UMUM
1. Isikan identitas Anda ke dalam Lembar Jawaban Komputer (LJK) yang
tersedia dengan menggunakan pensil 2B, sesuai petunjuk di Lembar
Jawaban Komputer (LJK).
2. Tersedia waktu 120 menit untuk mengerjakan paket tes tersebut.
3. Jumlah soal sebanyak 60 butir, pada setiap butir soal terdapat 5 (lima)
pilihan jawaban.
4. Periksa dan bacalah soal-soal sebelum Anda menjawabnya.
5. Laporkan kepada pengawas ujian apabila terdapat lembar soal yang kurang
jelas, rusak, atau tidak lengkap.
6. Mintalah kertas buram kepada pengawas ujian, bila diperlukan.
7. Tidak diizinkan menggunakan kalkulator, HP, tabel matematika atau alat
bantu hitung lainnya.
8. Periksalah pekerjaan Anda sebelum diserahkan kepada pengawas ujian.
9. Lembar soal tidak boleh dicoret-coret, difotokopi, atau digandakan.
3
Listening Section.
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken
English. There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part.
Part I
Questions 1 – 4
Directions:
For each question, you will see a picture in your test book and you will hear a question followed
by five statements. The questions and the statements will be spoken two times. They will not be
printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speaker says.
When you hear the question and five statements look at the picture in your test book and choose
the statement that best describes what you see in the picture. Then on the answer sheet, find the
number of the question and mark your answer. Look at the sample below.
Narrator:
Look at the picture in your test book.
What is the man doing? Sample answer
a. He is looking at the picture of the two women.
b. He is sitting in the garden holding a camera.
c. He is pointing at the two women.
d. He is taking a photograph of the women.
e. He is talking to the women.
Statement (d) “He is taking a photograph of the women,” best describes what you see in the
picture. Therefore, you should choose answer (d).
4
1.
2.
3.
5
4.
Part II
Questions 5 – 10
Directions:
In this part of the test you will hear a statement or a question spoken in English, followed by five
responses, also spoken in English. The statement or question and the responses will be spoken
two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand
what the speakers say. You have to choose the best response to each statement or question.
5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
8. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
9. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
10. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
I do not agree …

6
Part III
Questions 11 – 15
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear 2 conversations. They will be spoken two times. After you
hear a conversation and the questions about it, read the five possible answers and decide which
one would be the best answer to the questions you have heard.
11. a. How to get a bus.
b. How to get a taxi.
c. How far to walk.
d. How to get to the shopping center.
e. How to shop at the market.
12. a. Take a taxi.
b. Wait for a bus.
c. Ask for direction.
d. Go to another place.
e. Walk to the shopping center.
13. a. At a coffee shop.
b. At Rudi’s office
c. At Sandra’s office.
d. At the police station.
e. At a college.
14. a. Some tea.
b. Some soft drink.
c. Some water.
d. Some coffee.
e. Orange juice.
15. a. They are visitors.
b. They are guests.
c. They are colleagues.
d. They are officers.
e. They are friends.
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Part IV
Questions 16 – 20
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear 2 short texts. They will be spoken two times. After you hear
a text and the question(s) about it, read the five possible answer and decide which one would be
the best answer to the question(s) you have heard.
16. a. Albert Einstein.
b. Nobel Prize.
c. University of Zurich.
d. Hitler and his party.
e. Einstein’s famous work.
17. a. In 1879.
b. In 1905.
c. In 1919.
d. In 1933.
e. In 1955.
18. a. He wanted to meet Hitler.
b. He wanted to receive the Nobel Prize.
c. He wanted to talk to other scientists.
d. He wanted to make scientific researches.
e. He wanted to continue his study.
19. a. Preparing for landing.
b. An announcement for departure.
c. A save place for landing.
d. Cabin attendants.
e. The luggage of the passengers.
20. a. On a bus.
b. On a train.
c. On a ship.
d. On an aeroplane.
e. At the airport.
This is the end of the listening section
8
Reading Section
In this part of the test, you have to choose the best answer to each question from the alternatives
given.
Text 1
Read the following text to answer questions 21 and 22.
21. What is the poster about?
a. Oklahoma opera.
b. Memorable songs.
c. Music Theatre.
d. Spastic Children’s Association.
e. A musical show for raising funds.
Premiere
Venue : Hilton International
Singapore
Date : 20.9.93
Time : 8.00 p.m. – 11.00 p.m.
Ticket : $2000 per table
Matinee
Venue : Victoria Theatre – in Empress
Palace
Date : 23.9.93 – 25.9.93
Time : 2.00 p.m. – 5.00 p.m.
Ticket : $10 per child
$20 per parent
Organised by the Oklahoma City
University Alumni of Singapore and
the Singapore Broadcasting
Corporation
Performed by the Oklahoma Opera and
the Music Theatre Company of the
Oklahoma City University, based on
Lynn Rigg’s “Green Grow the Lilacs’
Memorable songs include ‘Oh What
a Beautiful Morning’ and ‘People
Will Say We’re in Love’ Each show:
Two acts Each act: Three scenes
To raise funds for the Spastic
Children’s Association of
Singapore – especially for a building
expansion
Tickets available from:
1. Hassan’s Carpets Pte. Ltd.,
#01-15 Tanglin Shopping Centre,
19 Tanglin Road
2. Metro Grand Scotts,
#04 – 01 Scotts Shopping Centre,
6 Scotts Road.
3. Yaohan Singapore Pte. Ltd.,
#B2- 00 Plaza Singapore,
68 Orchard Road.
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22. “The ‘Premiere’ show will be held at the Hilton International Singapore”
The word ‘Premiere’ means ....
a. first performance of a show
b. dinner performance of a show
c. show at the theatre
d. charity performance
e. prime time show
Text 2
Read the following text to answer questions 23 to 26.
Five days ago, I got a telephone call from my supervisor, Mr. Wahyudi. He congratulated me on
my success in increasing the sales target in August 2004. I have been working under his
supervision in the area of Pasuruan for three years. He invited me to come to his office. On the
phone he said that he needed to discuss the prospect of the company in the future. He planned to
expand his business to other towns in East Java.
Yesterday I was very happy because I could come to see Mr. Wahyudi. As I arrived at his office,
located at 12 Jalan Peneleh Masjid Surabaya, I was warmly greeted by him. He asked me what
drink I would like. I answered, “I like tea.” He asked the office boy to make it for me. He
showed me the table of the sales and he said, “It’s your duty to expand our business in the area of
Probolinggo. Then I read the table of my own sales which is much better than any other area’s
sales except that of Surabaya. I smiled happily to see my successful work. “I begin to have a lot
of self-confidence.” I thought, as a young salesman I said to myself, “Business is my world and it
is really true that my grandfather once said that I had a talent of selling things.” Here is the table
of the sales in August.
The sales of Magazines and Tabloids of “Bina Pustaka Distributor” in August 2004
Goods Sidoarjo Mojokerto Pasuruan Surabaya Total
1. Readers Digest 50 175 525 750 1.500
2. Nyata 100 175 500 500 1.275
3. Posmo 50 125 700 675 1.550
4. Dapur Kita 100 150 2.400 1.350 4.100
5. Mentari 50 125 225 400 850
23. The text mainly discusses about ....
a. a successful salesman
b. a grateful supervisor
c. the sales of magazines and tabloids
d. the new business
e. the prospect of the company
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24. Paragraph 2 mainly discusses about ....
a. Mr. Wahyudi’s office
b. how to expand the new business
c. how Mr. Wahyudi accepted his employee’s arrival
d. a talent of selling things
e. the writer’s talent
25. Based on the information from the table, the reader knows that ....
a. the writer reaches the sale target
b. the writer can sell the tabloid “Dapur Kita” the best
c. the sale rate in Surabaya is the best of all
d. the sale rate of Pasuruan is the same as that in Surabaya
e. the sale rate of tabloid “Dapur Kita” reaches the lowest
26. “He planned to expand his business to __” (Paragraph 1).
The underlined word means to ... larger.
a. change
b. develop
c. become
d. shape
e. improve
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Text 3
Read the following text to answer questions 27 to 30.
With a daughter off at college, Barton and his wife earlier this year liquidated their two
major assets. They sold their dying business in San Jose, California, for a few hundred thousand
dollars and their 170-square-meter house for somewhat more. They pocketed about $1 million.
Not bad for a couple in their early forties, with one kid at Ohio State University. Then again, not
too terrific when you live in the cosmically overpriced San Francisco Bay Area. What do you do
next?
Barton’s dying business was called American Machinist Supply. The 20-employee
company brokered custom-tooling for factory mills and lathes. It was a nice little business, for a
time. Then the economics that fueled it stopped working in California. During the tech boom of
the late-1990s, Barton watched his rent triple to $300 per square meter a year. His employees
could no longer afford to live in the Bay Area. Morale sank. Turnover soared.
Barton thought about relocating to San Diego, where rent and mortgage loans would go
twice as far. Not enough. His wife suggested moving east. He learned that rent and mortgage
would go five times further in Charlotte, North Carolina; Columbus, Ohio; and State College,
Pennsylvania. He walked into each city’s Chamber of Commerce. Within 24 hours, State College
found Barton office space in a research park sponsored by Penn State. That settled it.
Here’s Barton deal in a nutshell: He sank $500,000 – half his net worth – into
Blueswart.com, his new company. The university offered him a no-interest loan of $125,000,
payable in three years, and cheap rent. Barton, in turn, pledged to hire graduates of Penn State.
He’ll need those engineers, too. Blueswart.com is high tech all the way. It harnesses the web to
automate the old American Machinist Supply way of doing business that required 20 brokers on
the phone. Clever software helps Blueswart.com’s customers crank up factory output by
configuring mills and lathes with the best combination of tooling.
27. The text tells about ....
a. what Barton did to overcome his dying business
b. how to relocate Barton’s business in American Machinist Supply
c. the 20-employees who worked for Bartons’ business in American Machinist
Supply
d. a nice little business in San Jose, California which offered Barton’s $500,000
e. Bartons’ family who lived happily in San Jose California
28. Barton had to relocate his business to Penn State because ....
a. Penn State graduated better college students
b. the rent and cost of living in San Jose were high
c. his wife had a daughter at Ohio State University
d. his net was worth about $1 million
e. Penn State offered a no-interest loan
12
29. According to the text, which of the following statements is true?
a. Barton and his wife moved to Penn State because of their daughter
b. Barton’s employees could afford to live in Charlote, north California
c. Barton’s office was settled in San Diego, California because of the price
d. Barton hired graduates of Penn State to thank the university which offered a no
interest loan
e. Finally Barton’s family was able to afford to live in San Diego, California
30. “His employees could no longer afford to live in the Bay Area.”(Paragraph 2)
The underlined phrase has almost the same meaning as ....
a. do not have to
b. should not have to
c. must not be able to
d. shall be able to
e. were not able to
Text 4
Read the following poem to answer questions 31 to 36.
Once there were green fields kissed by the sun
Once there were valleys where rivers used to run
Once there were blue skies with white clouds high above
Once there were parts of an everlasting love
We were the lovers who strolled thro’ green fields
Green fields are gone now parched by the sun
Gone from the valleys where rivers used to run
Gone with the cold wind that swept into my heart
Gone with the lovers who let their dreams depart
Where are the green fields that we used to roam?
I’ll never know what made you run away
How can I keep searching when dark clouds hide the day
I only know there’s nothing here for me
Nothing in this wide world left for me to see
But I’ll keep on waiting ’til you return
I’ll keep on waitin’ until the day you learn
You can’t be happy while your heart’s in the room
You can’t be happy until you bring it home
Home to the green fields and me once again
31. What is the most suitable title of the song?
a. Blue sky.
b. Cold wind.
c. Green fields.
d. White clouds.
e. Running rivers.
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32. The main idea of the second verse is that ....
a. There are no green fields anymore
b. The lovers lose their hearts
c. The cold wind swept the lover’s heart
d. The sun heats the valleys
e. The rivers do not run anymore
33. What makes the green fields disappear?
a. The valleys.
b. The clouds.
c. The rivers.
d. The wind.
e. The sun.
34. The writer’s lover is now ....
a. beside him
b. away from him
c. waiting for him
d. dreaming of the green fields
e. running over the valley
35. “We were the lovers who strolled thro’ green fields.” (The first verse).
The underlined word means ....
a. walked
b. played
c. jumped
d. roamed
e. travelled
36. “Once there were parts of an everlasting love”. (The first verse)
The underlined word means ....
a. true
b. lovely
c. false
d. forbidden
e. endless
Read the following dialogues and answer the questions.
37. Father : What about your mathematics test this morning?
Son : I made no mistakes. I got ten.
Father : Oh I am very ... of you. You always do your best. There’s a present for you.
a. busy
b. tired
c. proud
d. angry
e. ashamed
14
38. Adam : Can I borrow your laptop?
Idris : Certainly, but what’s wrong with yours?
Adam : It ...now.
a. repaired
b. is repairing
c. is going to repair
d. has been repaired
e. is being repaired
39. Tia : You know Rian, Rudy is going to marry Sari.
Rian : ... ? As far as I know he doesn’t love her.
a. Really
b. Great
c. Amazing
d. Fantastic
e. Wonderful
40. Alan : This cake is very nice. Did you make it yourself?
Betty : No, I didn’t. I had it made.
The underlined sentence means ....
a. Betty had made the cake
b. Betty had to make the cake
c. Alan asked Betty to make the cake
d. Alan helps Betty make the cake
e. Betty asked someone to make the cake
41. Yudha : Where were you yesterday, Wahyu?
Wahyu : I attended a seminar about how to prevent skin cancer.
Yudha : Really? I would have joined it if I had known.
The underlined sentence means ....
a. Yudha was absent from his office
b. Wahyu was present in his office
c. Yudha joined the seminar
d. Wahyu didn’t join the seminar
e. Yudha didn’t join the seminar
42. Fajar : Dad, may I come along to grandma’s house?
Father : I’m afraid not, you are going to have an examination soon.
The underlined expression shows ....
a. refusing permission
b. expressing an apology
c. offering something
d. giving permission
e. wondering
15
43. Ron : You have stolen my new key holder.
Jill : …. Perhaps Jack did.
a. Not at all
b. Never mind
c. Forget it
d. All right
e. Sure
44. Via : Was the film good, Neno?
Neno : I don’t know, I didn’t see it
Via : Didn’t you go to the theatre last night with Titos?
Neno : Yes, but when we got there, the film ....
We went to the mall instead
a. starts
b. had started
c. has been started
d. started
e. has started
45. X : I haven’t met John for three days. What happened to him?
Y : He was sent to the hospital because of his sickness.
X : Oh, poor John. I hope he’ll be better soon.
The underlined sentence is used to express ....
a. pleasure
b. agreement
c. sympathy
d. expectation
e. satisfaction
46. Dina : Have you heard that Tino had an accident last week?
Ita : Really? Oh, ... I hope he’ll be fine soon.
a. it surprises me
b. it sounds great
c. it’s not my business
d. that’s out of the question
e. I’m sorry to hear that
47. X : Have you finished doing your assignment?
Y : No, but I ... doing it by next week.
a. am going to finish
b. will have finished
c. have been finished
d. have to finish
e. will finish
16
48. Rony : Last night there was an earthquake in my neighbourhood.
Tommy : Was there?
Rony : Yeah. You know I ... the earth shaking for some minutes.
a. saw
b. noticed
c. felt
d. observed
e. watched
49. It was then we suddenly become aware of the stillness of the night, and although it sounds
odd to say so, the silence seemed even louder than the noise we had been making before.
The underlined word has the same meaning as ....
a. strange
b. funny
c. usual
d. nice
e. suprised
50. Ami : Why do you arrange this bedroom?
Are you going to have a special guest?
Alya : Yes, my friend Ida will come to visit us.
Ami : Ida from Bandung?
Alya : No, that’s Ida Kambe.
This one is Ida Nantono, ... in Yogya when I studied there.
a. who I lived with her
b. that I lived with
c. where I lived
d. whom I lived with
e. Whom I lived with her